Saturday, September 12, 2009

Reading Comprehension

Aloha Friends,

When I looked at this article, it seemed as if it was something that could be read at full tilt. However once I started to read it I found that I quickly had to take a look at the preceding lines. Not that the passage is in itself very complicated, far from it. But it definitely needs a fair degree of concentration to fully comprehend what it means.

As usual please put down what you feel is the summary in the comments section. This is the 4th RC passage that I have put up. I will give my opinion of the summary of the previous three by Sunday evening, and of this one by Tuesday evening.

Happy Reading!!!

The Meaning of Ousia (Being) in Plato

What does ousia mean? It is already a quirky, idiomatic word in ordinary use when Plato gets hold of it. By a quirk of our own language one may say indeed that it means substance, but only, I repeat only, in the sense in which a rich man is called a man of substance. You may safely allow your daughter to marry him because you know where he will be and what he will be doing tomorrow and twenty years from now.Ousia meant permanent property, real estate, non-transferable goods: not the possessions we are always using up or consuming but those that remain–land, houses, wealth of the kind one never spends since it breeds new wealth with no expense of itself. When Socrates asks Meno for the ousia of the bee he is not using a technical philosophical term but a metaphor: what is the estate of a bee that each one inherits simply by being born a bee? A man of substance who has permanent wealth is who he is because of what he owns. A bee is to his permanent and his variable characteristics as a man is to his permanent and his spendable wealth. The metaphor takes a second step when applied to virtue: the varying instances of virtue in a man, a woman, a slave, and the rest must all have some unvarying core which makes them virtues. There must be some single meaning to which we always refer when we pronounce anything a virtue. This is the step Socrates continually insists that Meno must take. But remember, in the slave-boy scene, Socrates twice entices the slave-boy into giving plausible incorrect answers about the side of the double square. Is there an ousia of virtue? Socrates uses the word not as the result of an induction or abstraction or definition, but by stretching an already strained metaphor. People have disposable goods which come and go and ousiatic goods which remain; bees have some characteristics in which they differ, and others in which they share; the virtues differ, but are they the same in anything but name? Even if they are, must it be a definition that they share? Not all men have ousia. Ordinarily only a few men do. The rest of us work for them, sell to them, marry them, gather in the hills to destroy them, but do not have what they have. Perhaps there are only a few virtues, or only one.

The word ousia, as Plato’s Socrates handles it, seems to be a double-edged weapon. It explicitly rejects Meno’s way of saying what virtue is, but implicitly suggests that the obvious alternative may fail as well. If virtue is not simply a meaningless label used ambiguously for many unconnected things, that does not mean that it must unambiguously name the same content in each of the things it names. Since ousia is our metaphor, let us ask what wealth means. If a poor man has a hut and a cow and some stored-up food, are they his wealth? He is certainly not wealthy. On the other hand, King Lear says that “our basest beggars Are in poorest thing superfluous”; no human life is cut so fine as to lack anything beyond what satisfies bare need. The beggar, like the family on welfare, does not have the means to satisfy need, but need not for that reason forego those possessions which give life comfort or continuity. His wealth is derived from the wealth of others. The small farmer may maintain something of the independence a wealthy man enjoys, but one bad year could wipe him out. He will either accumulate enough to become wealthy himself, or his life will remain a small-scale analogy to that of the wealthy. Wealth means, first of all, only that which a few people have and the rest of us lack, but because it means that, it also, at the same time, means secondarily something that all of us possess. There is an ambiguity at work in the meaning of the word “wealth” which is not a matter of a faulty vocabulary and not a matter of language at all: it expresses the way things are. Wealth of various kinds exists by derivation from and analogy to wealth in the emphatic sense. Indeed Meno, who spontaneously defines virtue by listing virtues, is equally strongly inclined to say that the power to rule over men and possessions is the only virtue there is. He cannot resolve the logical difficulties Socrates raises about his answers, but they are all resolvable. Meno in fact believes that virtue is ousia in its simple sense of big money, and that women, children, and slaves can only have virtue derivatively and ambiguously. Socrates’ question is one of those infuriatingly ironic games he is always playing. The ousia of virtue, according to Meno and Gorgias, is ousia.

And I am ousia here ... oops ... I meant I am outta here,

Ciao

PS: This passage has been taken from the article "Aristotle: Metaphysics". The link is: http://www.iep.utm.edu/aris-met/ Those of you feeling brave enough can go over to this site and read the entire article. It is only 16 pages long.... ;-)

2 comments:

  1. Out of curiosity i searched the net for the socrates-slave boy conversation referred to in the passage and found this..Its pretty cool..:)

    http://www.cut-the-knot.org/proofs/half_sq.shtml

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  2. Socrates with his double edged-sword is always ready to befuddle the thinker in you. And he has ousia-ed it it again!

    What is externally possessed as a man that is immovable is the ousia of the man?
    What is the virtue defined in all of us is the immovable virtue present in us which is the man's ousia?

    Or is it?

    Is virtue the same for all men or is it just a definition possessed by all men?
    Is the wealth possessed judged at the same degree for all men or is it relatively different for different strata of society like the beggar and the farmer and the rich man?

    If one is true the other is false and if the other is true then then the one is false but the one cannot be false and neither can the other?
    Socrates at his be-fuddling best!

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